Exam 2 Review 18px

BMSC 3404 — Exam 2 Review

Modules 3 & 4 · concise answers, explanations, and self-test cards mapped to the lecture review questions.

Module 3 · Lesson 1 — Introduction to Microbial Genomes

5 questions on Exam 2 come from this lesson.

Q1What are the informational macromolecules?
Answer
  • Informational macromolecules = nucleic acids (DNA + RNA) and proteins.
  • Anchor vocab: gene = functional unit · genome = all genetic elements in a cell · DNA = blueprint · RNA = transcription product; proteins = translation products (from RNA).
Explanation
"Informational macromolecules" is a category, and the easy miss is proteins — everyone names the nucleic acids (DNA + RNA). Note that genome is a separate term (all the genetic elements in a cell), not a type of nucleic acid. This vocabulary is the spine of the genetics module: the central dogma (DNA → RNA → protein) underpins M3L2–M3L4, so even though Q1 is tested as simple recall, locking these terms now makes every harder question faster.
Q2What are the basic properties of DNA?
Answer
  • DNA is a double helix (double-stranded), runs antiparallel, with complementary base pairing (A–T, C–G).
  • Built from nucleotides, each = nitrogenous base + deoxyribose (5-C sugar) + phosphate.
    • A nucleoside is just base + sugar (no phosphate) — distractor, not a property.
Explanation
Each property is doing a job. DNA's whole value is being copied accurately, and the structure is what makes that possible: antiparallel + complementary strands mean either one can rebuild the other — the mechanism M3L2 unpacks as semiconservative replication. The nucleotide parts (base–sugar–phosphate) and the A–T/C–G rules are the alphabet the rest of the module is written in: transcription reads it, mutations alter it, viral genetics exploits it. The exam tests these directly, but more often assumes them inside harder questions — so they need to be automatic.
Flashcard
Nucleotide vs nucleoside — what's the difference?
Q3What are the bonds within and between DNA strands?
Answer
  • Within a strand: phosphodiester bonds (covalent) link nucleotides along the sugar–phosphate backbone.
  • Between strands: hydrogen bonds link the two nucleic-acid chains (A–T, C–G).
    • A–T = 2 H-bonds, G–C = 3 → GC-rich DNA is more stable (foundation, not the direct answer).
DNA structure: nucleotides linked by phosphodiester bonds within each strand; two nucleic-acid chains linked by hydrogen bonds; strands run antiparallel
Phosphodiester bonds link nucleotides within a strand; hydrogen bonds link the two chains; strands run antiparallel.
Explanation
The two bond types divide the labor, and that split is what the question is really testing. Phosphodiester bonds are covalent and run along one strand, giving it a stable backbone; hydrogen bonds are individually weak and only span between strands — strong enough together to hold the helix, weak enough to unzip on demand. That unzipping is what lets helicase open DNA for replication and RNA polymerase read it for transcription (M3L2). So "within vs between" isn't bookkeeping — it's why DNA can be both archival and readable, and it shows up as a direct matching/identification item.
Flashcard
Which bonds act within a single strand vs between the two strands?
Q4What is the central dogma of molecular biology?
Answer
  • The central dogma is the one-directional flow DNA → RNA → protein.
  • Transcription makes RNA from a DNA template; translation makes protein from mRNA (read by the ribosome).
    • Replication (DNA → DNA) copies the genome — related machinery, but not part of the central dogma's flow.
Central dogma diagram: DNA replication, transcription of DNA to RNA, translation of RNA to protein
DNA → RNA → protein, with replication shown copying DNA.
Explanation
The central dogma is the map for the whole genetics module — each arrow becomes its own lesson. M3L2 details transcription and translation (and replication's machinery), M3L3 covers what happens when the DNA is altered (mutation) or moved between cells (gene transfer), and M3L4 shows how viruses reroute this flow (e.g., RNA → DNA in retroviruses). If you can place any later mechanism on this scaffold — name which arrow it belongs to — half the reasoning on harder questions is already done. The exam tests it as direct recall, but its real payoff is as the framework everything else hangs on.
Flashcard
Match the process to the arrow: DNA → RNA is ___, RNA → protein is ___.
Q5Compare and contrast a typical bacterial, archaeal, and eukaryotic genome.
Answer
  • Bacteria and Archaea: a single, circular, double-stranded DNA chromosome.
  • Eukaryotes: 2 or more linear chromosomes.
    • Eukaryotic DNA is housed in a membrane-bound nucleus; prokaryotic genomes are generally smaller (E. coli = 4.64 Mbp).
Explanation
The headline is that Bacteria and Archaea look alike at the genome level — both a single circular chromosome — so the real dividing line here is prokaryote vs eukaryote architecture, not bacteria vs archaea. (Archaea's distinctiveness shows up later, in their more eukaryote-like replication and transcription machinery — M3L2.) This matters because the exam often hands you a genome description and asks you to place it, which is exactly Q6: circular + single + no nucleus reads prokaryotic, while multiple linear chromosomes in a nucleus reads eukaryotic.
Q6If I describe a genome, can you tell what type of organism it's likely in?
Flashcard
Single, circular dsDNA chromosome, no nucleus → which domain(s)?
Flashcard
Multiple linear chromosomes inside a nucleus → which domain?
Flashcard
Can genome architecture alone separate Bacteria from Archaea?
Q7What is supercoiling?
Answer
  • Supercoiling = DNA twisting and coiling on itself to compact the chromosome so it fits inside the cell.
    • Unwound, the chromosome is several hundred times longer than the cell.
Explanation
Supercoiling solves a packing problem: a bacterial chromosome, stretched out, is several hundred times longer than the cell, so it twists on itself to fit. It sets up the next two questions — the cell actively manages the coiling (Q8), and one direction is protective (Q9). It also matters downstream, since how tightly DNA is coiled affects how easily it can be opened for replication and transcription (M3L2).
Q8What controls positive and negative supercoiling?
Answer
  • Negative supercoiling = clockwiseDNA gyrase and topoisomerase II.
  • Positive supercoiling = counterclockwiseDNA topoisomerase I.
Explanation
These enzymes are how the cell actively tunes the coiling rather than leaving it to chance, adding or relaxing twists to keep the chromosome both compact and accessible. The pairing is the trap here: keep gyrase / topo II with negative (clockwise) and topo I with positive (counterclockwise) straight, because matching the enzyme to the direction is exactly how it gets tested.
Flashcard
Negative vs positive supercoiling — direction and controlling enzymes?
Q9What is the benefit of positive supercoiling?
Answer
  • Positive supercoiling helps prevent melting (denaturing) of DNA at high temperatures.
Explanation
Overwinding the helix tightens the two strands together, so they resist separating when heat would otherwise pull them apart. That's why it matters most for heat-loving organisms — keeping the double helix intact in hot environments is a survival feature. It's the one benefit the lecture singles out, so expect it as a direct "benefit of positive supercoiling?" item.
Flashcard
What is the benefit of positive supercoiling?
Q10What are operons?
Answer
  • An operon = a cluster of genes (often for one biochemical pathway) transcribed and regulated as a single unit.
    • They share one regulatory region and produce a single polycistronic mRNA; operons are the exception, not the rule.
Explanation
Operons are a bacterial efficiency trick: putting genes for one job under a single control region lets the cell switch the whole set on or off with one decision. That "one unit" logic is exactly why a single regulatory event (Q11) can control several proteins at once — and why bacteria adjust to their environment so quickly. Worth flagging that this clustering is the exception, not the rule; most genes aren't in operons.
Flashcard
What is an operon, and what type of mRNA does it produce?
Q11How are operons regulated?
Answer
  • Through the operon's regulatory region:
    • PromoterRNA polymerase binds.
    • Operatorbinds regulatory proteins.
  • A repressor (from a separate repressor gene) blocks the promoter until an activating molecule binds it.
    • lac operon: the repressor binds lactose, releases from the operator, and frees the promoter so transcription proceeds.
lac operon structure: repressor gene lacI, regulatory region with promoter and operator, structural genes lacZ lacY lacA
lac operon: repressor gene (lacI), regulatory region (promoter–operator), structural genes (lacZ, lacY, lacA).
lac operon regulation: without lactose the repressor binds the operator and blocks transcription; with lactose the repressor is released and transcription proceeds
No lactose: the repressor binds the operator and blocks RNA polymerase. With lactose: the repressor is released and transcription proceeds.
Explanation
The logic is a switch that's off by default: the repressor sits on the operator and blocks RNA polymerase. The activating molecule (lactose, in the lac operon) binds the repressor and pulls it off, turning the genes on. The exam tests the cause→effect order, so hold two things: lactose acts on the repressor, not the DNA, and it's the removal of the repressor that permits transcription.
Flashcard
In the lac operon, how does lactose switch transcription on?
Q12What are plasmids?
Answer
  • A plasmid = a small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule separate from the chromosome that replicates independently and is nonessential.
    • May influence host cell physiology.
Explanation
Plasmids are the bacterial "extra" genome — the cell survives fine without them, but they're a flexible add-on. Because they replicate on their own and can move between cells, they're a major vehicle for spreading advantageous traits (Q13) and central to antibiotic resistance and evolution (their transfer is detailed in M3L3). So "nonessential" doesn't mean unimportant — it means optional but often decisive.
Q13What is often found on plasmids?
Answer
  • Plasmids carry nonessential but advantageous genes — useful traits, not survival basics.
    • Common categories: virulence factors, bacteriocins, nitrogen fixation, hydrocarbon degradation and other metabolic functions.
  • The key one: antibiotic resistance, carried on R plasmids and spread cell-to-cell by horizontal gene transfer.
Explanation
The standout — the one with real clinical weight, and the one your professor emphasized — is antibiotic resistance. R plasmids can stack several resistance genes and move between bacteria by horizontal gene transfer, which is how resistance spreads through a whole population. That spread is why plasmids matter far beyond a single cell, and it's developed further in M3L3.
Flashcard
What key trait do plasmids carry, and how does it spread?
Q14How are plasmids different from chromosomes?
Answer
  • Nonessential (cell survives without it) vs the chromosome's essential core genes.
  • Much smaller than the chromosome.
  • Replicates independently of the chromosome.
  • Transferable between cells via horizontal gene transfer; the chromosome generally isn't.
    • Similarities: both plasmids and chromosomes are circular, double-stranded DNA, so shape isn't a distinguishing feature.
Explanation
A clean way to hold it: the chromosome is the core operating system (essential, comprehensive), and the plasmid is an optional app (nonessential, specialized, swappable). Your instinct about transferability is the single most distinguishing feature — plasmids move horizontally between cells and the chromosome doesn't, which is exactly what makes them so powerful for spreading resistance. Don't get baited by shape: both plasmids and chromosomes are circular dsDNA, so the real contrast is essentiality, size, independent replication, and transfer.
Flashcard
Key differences between a plasmid and a chromosome?

M3L1 — reinforcement quiz

Highest-yield corners of the lesson — recall and application. Answer each; missed ones can be retried.

0 / 9 correct

Module 3 · Lesson 2 — Making Informational Macromolecules

7 questions on Exam 2 · DNA Replication / Transcription / Translation. All three sections complete (Replication · Transcription · Translation).

DNA Replication

Q1Initiation — what is the general process?
Answer
  1. Starts at the origin of replication (oriC).
  2. dnaA binds the origin and opens (melts) the double helix.
  3. dnaC loads the helicase (dnaB) onto the open complex.
  4. Helicase unwinds and separates the two strands.
  5. Single-stranded binding proteins (SSBs) stabilize the open strands.
  6. Gyrase / topoisomerase relieves supercoiling ahead of the fork.
  7. Primase (dnaG) lays an RNA primer to start synthesis.
DNA replication initiation: dnaA opens the origin, helicase unwinds the strands, SSBs stabilize the open helix, primase lays an RNA primer
Initiation at the replication fork — helicase unwinding, SSBs, primase.
Explanation
Initiation is a hand-off relay: it's not enough to open the DNA — you open it at the right place (origin), keep it open (SSBs), relieve the strain building ahead (gyrase), and lay a starting block (primer) before copying can begin. The exam may test this as a sequence or as "which player does what," and it's the setup for elongation — every protein here builds the replication fork that DNA pol III will run.
Flashcard
Besides the dna proteins, what do SSBs and gyrase/topoisomerase do during initiation?
Q2–Q3Functions of dnaA, dnaB, dnaC, dnaG — and what happens if each is mutated?
Answer
ProteinFunctionIf mutated (knocked out)
dnaABinds the origin and opens (melts) the double helixNo initiation — the helix can't be opened
dnaB (helicase)Unwinds and separates the two DNA strandsNo unwinding/separation at the fork
dnaCLoads the helicase onto the open complexHelicase never loads → looks like a helicase failure (no unwinding)
dnaG (primase)Lays the RNA primer that DNA pol III extendsNo primer → DNA polymerase III can't begin synthesis
Explanation
These four are the initiation core. The exam may test this as matching each to its function and predicting the failure mode if it's knocked out. Hold the dependency chain: dnaA opens the origin → dnaC loads the helicase (dnaB) → dnaB unwinds → dnaG primes. That chain is why a dnaC mutation looks like a helicase failure even though dnaC isn't the helicase — the real cause is upstream. That's the kind of causal reasoning application questions may test.
Flashcard
Match each to its job: dnaA, dnaB, dnaC, dnaG.
Q4Elongation — what is the general process?
Answer
  • DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides to the 3′ end of the growing strand; synthesis runs only 5′ → 3′.
  • Because of that directionality (and antiparallel templates):
    • Leading strand — built continuously toward the fork (one primer).
    • Lagging strand — built discontinuously, away from the fork, in short pieces called Okazaki fragments, each with its own RNA primer.
Leading and lagging strand synthesis: DNA polymerase III builds the continuous leading strand; the lagging strand is made as Okazaki fragments, each primed by an RNA primer
Leading strand (continuous) vs lagging strand (Okazaki fragments).
Explanation
Elongation is where the actual copying happens, and the one idea that makes the rest fall into place is the 5′ → 3′-only rule. Because DNA pol III can only add to a 3′ end and the templates run antiparallel, only one new strand (leading) can be built continuously toward the fork; the other (lagging) has to be built backward, in short pieces. Those pieces are Okazaki fragments, each started by its own RNA primer. The exam may test this as "why is one strand discontinuous?" or by labeling leading vs lagging.
Flashcard
Why is the lagging strand made in fragments, and what are they called?
Q5–Q6Function of gyrase/topoisomerase and DNA polymerase III — and what happens if each is mutated?
Answer
EnzymeFunctionIf mutated
DNA polymerase IIIBuilds the new strand — extends from the RNA primer, adding nucleotides 5′→3′No elongation — the fork opens and primes, but nothing gets copied
gyrase / topoisomeraseRelieves supercoiling / torsional strain ahead of the forkStrain builds up → the fork (helicase) stalls and can't proceed
Explanation
These two keep elongation moving from opposite ends of the problem: DNA pol III does the building, and gyrase/topoisomerase clears the torsional strain that piles up ahead of the fork as the helix unwinds. If gyrase can't relieve that strain, the fork stalls; if DNA pol III is knocked out, the fork can still open and prime, but nothing gets copied. The exam may test these as "match the enzyme to its job" or "predict the failure mode."
Flashcard
In elongation, what do DNA pol III and gyrase/topoisomerase each do?
Q7–Q8Termination — general process, and the function of DNA polymerase I and ligase (ligA / ligB)?
Answer
  • General process: the RNA primers are removed and replaced with DNA, then the fragments are sealed into one continuous strand.
EnzymeFunction
DNA polymerase IRemoves the RNA primers and replaces them with DNA
DNA ligase (ligA, ligB)Seals DNA fragments together — forms the phosphodiester bond joining 3′-OH to 5′-P
Termination: DNA polymerase I excises and replaces the RNA primer with DNA, then DNA ligase seals the fragments by forming a phosphodiester bond between 3-prime OH and 5-prime P
Pol I replaces the RNA primer with DNA; ligase seals the fragments.
Explanation
Termination is cleanup and sealing: DNA pol III leaves RNA primers behind (especially the many on the lagging strand's Okazaki fragments), so DNA pol I swaps that RNA out for DNA, and ligase stitches the pieces into one unbroken strand. That final seal is a phosphodiester bond — the same covalent backbone bond from M3L1 — which is what makes the finished strand continuous and stable. The exam may test this as "which enzyme removes primers vs seals nicks" or by ordering the steps.
Flashcard
At termination, what do DNA polymerase I and DNA ligase each do?
Q9–Q10Where does bacterial replication originate and terminate, and what is the function of FtsZ?
Answer
  • Originates at the origin of replication; terminates at the terminus of replication (~opposite the origin).
  • Replication is bidirectional — two forks leave the origin in opposite directions around the circular chromosome.
  • FtsZ partitions the DNA — it forms the division ring (Z-ring) at midcell that drives cell division, separating the two chromosome copies into the daughter cells.
Bacterial circular chromosome replication: bidirectional forks run from the origin to the terminus opposite the origin; the two linked chromosome copies are partitioned by FtsZ
Circular chromosome: origin → terminus (opposite); copies partitioned by FtsZ.
The replisome at the fork: two DNA polymerase III enzymes held together by Tau, plus helicase, DNA gyrase, primase, and single-strand binding proteins
The replisome — two DNA pol III (via Tau), helicase, gyrase, primase, SSBs.
Explanation
Bacterial replication runs bidirectionally from one origin: two forks travel opposite ways around the circular chromosome and meet at the terminus. The result is two chromosome copies linked together that must be partitioned into separate daughter cells — that is FtsZ's job: it assembles the division ring at the cell's midpoint, driving the division that partitions one copy to each daughter. The exam may test this as "where do the forks meet?" or "which protein separates the chromosome copies?"
Flashcard
Where does bacterial replication begin and end?
Flashcard
What is the function of FtsZ?
Q11What antibiotics target DNA replication?
Answer
AntibioticTargetWhy it works
QuinolonesDNA gyrase + topoisomerase IVSupercoiling isn't relieved ahead of the fork → the replisome complex stalls → DNA can't be replicated
Rifampin & actinomycinRNA polymerase (RNA synthesis)Block transcription (rifampin = initiation, actinomycin = elongation) → no RNA → no proteins for growth/division
Explanation
These split into two targets. Quinolones inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV: with supercoiling no longer relieved, the replisome complex stalls — the same gyrase dependency from elongation, now exploited as a drug target, so these directly block replication. Rifampin and actinomycin instead hit RNA polymerase, so they target transcription, not replication itself; shutting down RNA synthesis stops all protein production, which halts growth and division broadly. The exam may test this by matching each drug to its enzyme target.
Flashcard
Match each antibiotic to its target: quinolones / rifampin / actinomycin.

Transcription

Q12Initiation — what is the general process?
Answer
  • RNA polymerase recognizes and binds the promoter region of the DNA template strand to start transcription.
  • The sigma (σ) factor is the part that recognizes the promoter. With σ attached, RNA pol is the holoenzyme; once transcription begins, σ dissociates, leaving the core enzyme to elongate.
Sigma factor joins the RNA polymerase core enzyme and recognizes the promoter and initiation site on the DNA template strand
Sigma factor recognizes the promoter; the core enzyme does the synthesizing.
Explanation
Transcription is the DNA → RNA step, and initiation is just RNA polymerase finding where to start — handled by the sigma factor, which reads the promoter. Note the contrast with replication: transcription needs no primer (RNA pol can start on its own). Once it's going, sigma is no longer needed and drops off so the core enzyme can run down the gene. The exam may test this as "which subunit finds the start?" or by ordering holoenzyme → bind → σ release → core elongates.
Flashcard
What does the sigma factor do, and what happens to it after initiation?
Q13–Q15What part of RNA polymerase binds and where, what specific DNA does it recognize, and what if it's mutated?
Answer
  • What binds & where: the sigma (σ) factor binds the promoter (at the initiation site).
  • Specific sequences recognized: the −10 region (TATAAT, the Pribnow box) and the −35 region (TTGACG).
  • If mutated (the −10/−35 promoter or σ): RNA pol can't recognize/bindtranscription doesn't initiate for that gene.
Explanation
The −10 and −35 regions are the address label upstream of the gene, and σ is the reader. That's why a mutation on either side — the DNA address or the σ reader — breaks the same step: no recognition, no binding, no transcription of that gene. The exam may test this by naming the boxes/positions, or by asking you to predict the failure if σ or the promoter is mutated.
Flashcard
What two promoter sequences does sigma recognize (names, positions, and bases)?
Q16What does the template strand look like compared to the coding strand and mRNA?
Answer
  • The template strand is the complement of both the coding strand and the mRNA (it's the strand RNA pol reads).
  • The coding strand is identical to the mRNA, except RNA carries uracil (U) where DNA has thymine (T).
Explanation
RNA polymerase reads the template strand, so the RNA it builds is complementary to the template — which makes that RNA match the coding strand (the one not read), apart from U replacing T. The exam may test this by handing you one strand and asking for the mRNA, so keep it straight: read the template, the product mirrors the coding strand.
Flashcard
Which strand does RNA polymerase read, and which strand does the mRNA match?
Q17Elongation — what is the general process?
Answer
  • RNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 3′ end of the growing RNA, moving down the DNA template as it goes (same 3′-end, 5′→3′ logic as replication).
  • This produces a transcriptional unit — a DNA segment transcribed into one RNA molecule, with one initiation and one termination site.
Transcription elongation: sigma is released and the RNA polymerase core enzyme moves along the template, growing the RNA chain from its 5-prime end
Transcription begins, sigma is released, and the RNA chain grows as the core enzyme moves along.
Explanation
Elongation is the build phase: sigma has already been released, so the core enzyme just runs down the template adding to the 3′ end of the RNA. The transcriptional unit (one start, one stop → one RNA) is the setup for the next idea — when that one transcript carries more than one gene, it's polycistronic. The exam may test the direction (3′ end) or the transcriptional-unit definition.
Flashcard
To which end of the RNA does RNA polymerase add nucleotides during elongation?
Q18What is a polycistronic mRNA?
Answer
  • A single mRNA that carries multiple open reading frames (ORFs) — i.e., multiple genes transcribed together.
  • These are co-transcribed genes organized as operons, regulated as a unit.
An rRNA operon transcribed as one primary transcript carrying 16S rRNA, a tRNA, 23S rRNA, and 5S rRNA, then processed to remove spacers into the mature transcripts
One transcriptional unit → one primary transcript carrying several genes (16S, tRNA, 23S, 5S), then processed apart.
Explanation
Bacteria bundle related genes under one promoter so they're transcribed into one mRNA and controlled together — a callback to the operon idea (the lac operon from M3L1). The image shows the principle with an rRNA operon: a single transcript spanning 16S rRNA, a tRNA, 23S, and 5S, later processed apart. The exam may test the definition or the operon connection.
Flashcard
What is a polycistronic mRNA?
Q19–Q20Termination — what is the general process, and what initiates it?
Answer
  • General process: RNA pol reaches a termination sequence, the RNA folds into a hairpin loop (stem-loop), and the entire complex dissociates — releasing the RNA.
  • What initiates it — two modes:
    • Intrinsic (rho-independent): a GC-rich inverted repeat folds into the hairpin, immediately upstream of a run of uracils (poly-U) → the complex destabilizes and releases.
    • Rho-dependent: termination at a rho-dependent termination site.
Transcription termination: a GC-rich inverted repeat in the RNA folds into a stem-loop (hairpin) immediately upstream of a run of uracils, causing the RNA polymerase complex to dissociate and release the RNA
A GC-rich inverted repeat forms a stem-loop upstream of a poly-U run → termination.
Explanation
Termination is the off-switch. The most direct trigger: the RNA itself folds into a hairpin from a GC-rich inverted repeat, sitting right before a poly-U stretch — that combination pops the polymerase off the template (intrinsic / rho-independent). The alternative is a rho-dependent site. Either way, the complex dissociates and the finished RNA is freed. The exam may test recognizing the inverted-repeat/hairpin + poly-U, or distinguishing rho-dependent vs rho-independent.
Flashcard
In intrinsic (rho-independent) termination, what forms the hairpin and what follows it?
Flashcard
What are the two modes of transcription termination?
Q21What antibiotics target transcription?
Answer
  • Rifampin and actinomycin.
  • They prevent RNA synthesis by blocking the RNA polymerase active site (rifampin) or RNA elongation (actinomycin).
  • Why effective: no RNA gets built → no mRNA → no proteins → growth and division stall.
Explanation
Worth separating two things that are easy to merge: the active site is where RNA pol builds the RNA (adds nucleotides) — it is not what recognizes the promoter. Promoter recognition is the sigma factor's job (back in initiation). So blocking the active site doesn't stop promoter binding; it stops the actual synthesis — RNA pol can sit at the gene but can't extend the transcript. Knock out RNA synthesis and the cell can't make the proteins it needs, which is what makes these effective antibiotics. The exam may test matching each drug to its step, or this effectiveness chain.
Flashcard
What two antibiotics target transcription, and how does each work?

Translation

Q22What is the relationship between a codon and an anticodon?
Answer
  • A codon is a triplet (3 ribonucleotides) on the mRNA that codes for one amino acid.
  • Each amino acid is carried by a tRNA whose anticodon is complementary to and base-pairs with the codon — that's how the correct amino acid gets matched to each codon.
  • There is one start codon (AUG) and three stop codons.
Explanation
This is the decoding key for translation: the mRNA carries the message in codons, and each tRNA is a physical adapter — its anticodon reads one codon by base-pairing, while the other end holds that codon's amino acid. So the codon↔anticodon match is what turns a nucleotide sequence into an amino-acid sequence. The exam may test it as "which pairs with which," or by giving a codon and asking for the anticodon (it's complementary, and RNA uses U not T).
Flashcard
What is the relationship between a codon and an anticodon?
Q23–Q25Initiation — the general process, what the ribosome binds, and what a mutation there looks like?
Answer
  • General process: the small (30S) subunit + initiation factors bind the mRNA → at the start codon (AUG) → the first tRNA (fMet) joins, forming the initiation complex → the large (50S) subunit binds.
  • What the ribosome binds: the mRNA at the start codon (AUG) — that's the recognition point that gets initiation started.
    • (The specific ribosome-binding site — the Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacteria — comes up in the bacteria-vs-eukarya comparison.)
  • If the AUG region is mutated: the ribosome can't recognize the correct start codon, so translation can't initiate properly → no functional protein.
    • How you know it's ribosome binding, not something earlier: the mRNA is still present and normal — transcription worked. A transcription problem would leave you with no/abnormal mRNA. So normal mRNA + no protein = a binding/initiation problem.
Translation initiation complex: the small 30S subunit binds the mRNA at the AUG start codon, the initiator tRNA carrying methionine pairs by its anticodon, then the large 50S subunit joins, forming the A, P, and E sites
Initiation complex: the 30S subunit binds at the AUG start codon, initiator tRNA (Met) pairs, then 50S joins (A/P/E sites).
Reading frames: the same mRNA read in the correct frame gives one set of amino acids, while shifting the start by one base to the minus-1 or plus-1 frame yields entirely different amino acids
Reading frames — the AUG sets where reading begins; shifting it by one base changes every downstream amino acid.
Explanation
Initiation is the ribosome locking onto the mRNA at the right starting point — and the part the lecture emphasizes is that this point is the AUG start codon, which also sets the reading frame for everything downstream. That's why the start matters so much: get the start position wrong and every codon after it is misread (the reading-frames slide shows this). For the diagnostic — if the mRNA is present and normal but no protein comes off it, the failure is at ribosome binding/initiation, not transcription. The exam may hand you a "no protein, but the mRNA is fine" scenario and ask which step broke.
Flashcard
What does the ribosome bind on the mRNA to start translation?
Flashcard
Why does the AUG start position matter so much?
Flashcard
How do you know a defect is ribosome binding/initiation, not transcription?
Q26What is the difference in the ribosomes of bacteria and eukarya?
Answer
FeatureBacteriaEukarya
Ribosome (subunits → total)30S + 50S → 70S40S + 60S → 80S
Initiation recognizesShine-Dalgarno sequenceKozak sequence
First tRNAformylmethionine (often removed)methionine
mRNAlinearforms a circle
Coupled to transcription?Yes — at the same timeNo (separate)
Explanation
The literal answer to "difference in ribosomes" is size: bacteria run a 70S ribosome (30S + 50S), eukarya an 80S (40S + 60S). The other rows are additional bacteria-vs-eukarya translation differences the slide groups here. That size gap isn't trivia — it's why some antibiotics can hit the bacterial 70S / 30S without touching the human 80S (the selectivity behind the antibiotics question). The exam may test the subunit numbers directly or pair them with the right domain.
Flashcard
Bacteria vs eukarya — ribosome subunits and total size?
Flashcard
Which initiation sequence does each domain recognize?
Q27–Q28Elongation — the general process, and the order a tRNA moves through the ribosome?
Answer
  • General process: the mRNA threads through the ribosome and tRNAs add amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain one at a time; the ribosome advances 3 nucleotides at a time.
  • Order a tRNA moves: A → P → E
    • A site — incoming charged tRNA is loaded (via elongation factor EF-Tu).
    • P site — the growing polypeptide chain attaches to the prior tRNA.
    • E site — the now-empty tRNA exits.
Translation elongation cycle: codon recognition loads a charged tRNA into the A site (via EF-Tu and GTP), a peptide bond forms transferring the growing polypeptide, then translocation (requiring EF-Tu and EF-Ts) shifts the tRNAs toward the P and E sites and the empty tRNA exits; the cycle repeats
Elongation cycle: codon recognition at A → peptide bond → translocation (EF-Tu/EF-Ts, GTP) → empty tRNA exits at E.
Explanation
Elongation is the assembly line: each cycle brings one new amino acid in at the A site, bonds it onto the chain held at the P site, then ratchets everything over so the spent tRNA leaves through the E site and the next codon sits in the A site. The order A → P → E tracks a single tRNA's journey: enters loaded, holds the chain, exits empty. The exam may give the three sites scrambled and ask you to order them, or pair each site with what's happening there.
Flashcard
What is the order a tRNA moves through the ribosome, and what happens at each site?
Flashcard
During elongation, how far does the ribosome advance per cycle, and what does the tRNA add?
Q29–Q30Termination — the general process, and what is ribosome recycling?
Answer
  • Termination: the stop codon is recognized → release factors cleave (release) the polypeptide → the complex dissociates.
  • Ribosome recycling: once released, the ribosome can be reused — it's freed to start translating again.
  • The process can also repeat on one mRNA to form polysomes (many ribosomes on a single transcript).
Explanation
Termination is the mirror of initiation: instead of a start codon assembling the complex, a stop codon triggers release factors to free the finished polypeptide and break the complex apart. Recycling is the efficiency payoff — the ribosome isn't consumed, so the moment it's released it can be reused on the next mRNA. The exam may pair termination with initiation (start vs stop codon, initiation factors vs release factors) or ask what "recycling" buys the cell.
Flashcard
What recognizes the stop codon, and what do they do?
Q31What antibiotics target translation?
Answer
  • Puromycin — binds the A site of the 70S ribosome, inducing chain termination (premature release of the polypeptide).
  • Aminoglycosides (e.g., streptomycin) — target the 16S rRNA of the 30S subunit, causing error-filled proteins that inhibit growth.
Puromycin structurally mimics an aminoacyl-tRNA (a tyrosyl-tRNA), differing by a peptide bond instead of an ester bond; in the ribosome it enters the A site and is added to the growing chain, but the resulting peptidyl-puromycin is released prematurely, terminating translation
Puromycin mimics an aminoacyl-tRNA → enters the A site → peptidyl-puromycin is released early, terminating the chain.
Explanation
Both exploit the bacterial ribosome specifically — the 70S / 30S from the previous question, which is why they hit bacteria without wrecking the human 80S. Puromycin is a structural mimic of an incoming charged tRNA, so it slips into the A site, gets added to the chain, and then forces an early release — translation just stops. Aminoglycosides don't stop it; they make it sloppy, garbling the 30S's reading so the proteins come out wrong. The exam may ask you to match each drug to its site/effect, or tie the 70S/30S target back to selectivity.
Flashcard
Puromycin vs aminoglycosides — target and effect?

M3L2 — reinforcement quiz

All three sections — replication, transcription, translation. Answer each; missed ones can be retried.

0 / 12 correct

Module 3 · Lesson 3 — Mutation & Gene Transfer

8 questions on Exam 2 · Mutations + horizontal gene transfer. Complete.

Mutation

Q1–Q3What is a point mutation, what are the types, and the result of each?
Answer
  • Point mutation = a change in only one base pair (a base-pair substitution). The phenotypic effect depends on the exact location.
TypeEffect on codonResult (protein)
Missensechanges one amino acid to a different amino acidfaulty protein
Silentno change to the polypeptidenormal protein
Nonsensechanges an amino acid to a STOP codontruncated (incomplete) protein
A single DNA base-pair substitution produces three outcomes: a missense mutation changes the codon to a different amino acid (asparagine) giving a faulty protein, a nonsense mutation changes it to a STOP codon giving an incomplete protein, and a silent mutation gives the same amino acid (tyrosine) and a normal protein, compared to the wild-type sequence
One base swap → missense (different AA, faulty), nonsense (STOP, incomplete), or silent (same AA, normal), vs wild type.
Explanation
All three start from the same event — one base swapped — so what separates them is purely what that swap does to the codon. Same change, three fates: a different amino acid (missense), the same amino acid because the code is redundant (silent), or a premature STOP that cuts the protein short (nonsense). That "depends on location" point is the takeaway: a single substitution can be harmless or protein-killing depending on which codon position it hits. The exam may give you a before/after codon or amino-acid change and ask which type it is.
Flashcard
Name the three point-mutation types and each one's effect on the protein.
Flashcard
A point mutation changes a codon from UAU (Tyr) to UAA. Which type is it, and why does it matter?
Q4–Q6What is a frameshift mutation, what is the end result, and is it more or less detrimental than a point mutation?
Answer
  • Frameshift mutation = insert or delete a base pair.
  • End result: it scrambles the entire downstream polypeptide (the reading frame shifts). Can cause gain/loss of hundreds to thousands of base pairs — often due to transposable elements.
  • More detrimental than a point mutation: a point mutation changes at most one codon, while a frameshift misreads every codon downstream.
Frameshift reading frames: inserting a C:G base pair shifts the mRNA into the +1 reading frame, the normal sequence is frame 0 giving the normal protein, and deleting a C:G base pair shifts into the minus-1 frame; every codon after the change differs
Insertion → +1 frame, normal → 0, deletion → −1 frame — every codon after the change is read differently.
Explanation
Because codons are read in fixed triplets, adding or removing a single base pushes the whole reading frame over by one — so unlike a point mutation, which is contained to one position, a frameshift propagates: every codon past the insertion/deletion is different, and a premature STOP usually appears. That's the basis of the "more detrimental" answer. The exam may show you an insertion or deletion and ask for the consequence, or ask you to rank frameshift vs point and justify it.
Flashcard
What defines a frameshift, and what is the downstream effect?
Flashcard
Why is a frameshift generally more detrimental than a point mutation?
Q7What causes induced mutations?
Answer
  • Induced mutations are caused environmentally or deliberately by mutagens — chemical, physical, or biological agents that increase mutation rates.
MutagenSubtypeWhat it does to DNA
Nucleotide base analogsfaulty base pairing → ↑ replication errors
Chemical mutagensAlkylating agentsdisrupt base pairing → indels + substitutions
Intercalating agentsforce indels
Radiation (DNA lesions)Non-ionizing (UV)pyrimidine dimers
Ionizing (X-ray)double-strand breaks
Explanation
The unifying idea is the mutagen: an outside agent that drives the mutation rate above the spontaneous baseline, either by corrupting base pairing (base analogs, alkylating agents) or by physically damaging the DNA (intercalators forcing indels, radiation causing lesions). The two radiation pairings are the highest-yield split — UV → pyrimidine dimers vs ionizing → double-strand breaks. The exam may give you a specific agent and ask for its mechanism, or pair each radiation type with its lesion.
Flashcard
Match the radiation type to its DNA lesion.
Flashcard
Alkylating vs intercalating agents — how do their effects differ?
Q8–Q9What are the benefits of mutations, and what is mutation reversion?
Answer
  • Benefit of mutations: they generate genetic variation — the raw material for adaptation. Mutation fuels evolution; some are beneficial.
  • Reversion = returning a mutation to its original form / restoring the wild-type phenotype (possible because point mutations are typically reversible). A revertant = a strain in which the original phenotype is restored.
    • Same-site revertant — the mutated base is restored to the original sequence (the original mutation is undone).
    • Second-site revertant — a mutation at a different site restores the wild-type phenotype without fixing the original = a suppressor mutation. It can be in the same gene, another gene, or another gene that makes a compensating enzyme.
    • Suppressor tRNA (nonsense case) — a tRNA's anticodon mutates to read the STOP as an amino acid → full-length protein restored, preventing a lethal mutation.
Explanation
The clean split: same-site reverses the original change (DNA back to wild type), while second-site leaves the original mutation in place but adds a compensating change elsewhere — a suppressor. The suppressor tRNA is the textbook second-site case: the premature STOP from a nonsense mutation is still in the gene, but an altered tRNA now reads through it, rescuing the full-length protein. The exam may ask you to distinguish same-site from second-site, or to identify the suppressor-tRNA mechanism.
Flashcard
Same-site vs second-site revertant — what's the difference?
Flashcard
How does a suppressor tRNA revert a nonsense mutation?

Gene Transfer

Q10–Q13What is transformation, what does it require in a host, what integrates the DNA, and what is the process?
Answer
  • Transformation = free DNA is incorporated into a recipient cell (only a small portion of a gene at a time).
  • Host requirement: a competent host — a cell able to take up DNA and be transformed.
  • What integrates it: RecA integrates the DNA if it is homologous with the chromosome.
  • Process: homologous recombination — DNA binds → taken up as single-stranded DNA (a nuclease degrades the other strand) → RecA recombines it into the genome.
Transformation in three steps: (1) transforming DNA from a donor binds the recipient cell via a DNA-binding protein, (2) uptake of single-stranded DNA as a nuclease degrades the other strand into free nucleotides, with competence-specific single-strand DNA-binding protein and RecA present, (3) RecA-mediated homologous recombination integrates the DNA, producing a transformed recipient cell
1. Bind free DNA → 2. Uptake of ssDNA (nuclease degrades the second strand) → 3. RecA-mediated homologous recombination → transformed cell.
Explanation
Transformation is the "naked DNA from the environment" route — no donor contact, no phage. The gate is competence: only a competent cell can bind and import the DNA. Once inside, it enters as a single strand, so it can't just sit there — RecA must splice it into the chromosome by homologous recombination, which is why the incoming sequence has to be homologous. That homology requirement is also why plasmid DNA transforms poorly naturally — it has no chromosomal match to recombine into. The exam may test the competence requirement, the RecA/homology step, or why only homologous DNA is stably taken up.
Flashcard
What does a cell need to be, and what integrates the DNA, in transformation?
Flashcard
In what form is the donor DNA taken up, and why must it be homologous?
Q14–Q16What is transduction, generalized vs specialized, and the benefit of specialized?
Answer
  • Transduction = transfer of DNA from one cell to another by a bacteriophage (the phage is the vehicle; the DNA moved is the donor bacterium's genes).
  • Generalized: DNA from any portion of the host genome is packaged inside the virion. Donor genes can't replicate independently → lost without recombination.
  • Specialized: DNA from a specific region of the host chromosome is integrated directly into the virus genome (typically replacing some viral genes); integrated during lysogeny / via homologous recombination.
  • Benefit of specialized: lysogenic conversion — altering the host phenotype by lysogenization, and the lysogen becomes immune to further infection by the same phage.
Generalized transduction: in the lytic cycle a phage fragments the donor host DNA and, by accident, packages a piece of host DNA into a transducing particle; that particle injects the donor DNA into a recipient cell, where homologous recombination produces a transduced recipient cell
Generalized: a packaging error in the lytic cycle puts random donor DNA into a transducing particle → injected into a recipient → homologous recombination.
Specialized transduction: upon induction of a prophage, the normal event excises only phage DNA, but in a rare event a portion of adjacent host DNA (the galactose genes) is exchanged for phage DNA, producing a defective phage that can transduce the galactose genes
Specialized: the prophage excises imprecisely and carries the adjacent galactose genes → defective phage that transduces that specific region.
Explanation
The split is which donor genes get packaged and how. Generalized = a packaging accident during the lytic cycle, so any random fragment can be carried. Specialized = the prophage excises imprecisely and takes the genes adjacent to its integration site (the galactose genes in the slide), so only a specific region transfers. The benefit follows from that integration: as a prophage, it can change the host's phenotype (lysogenic conversion) and grant immunity to reinfection by the same phage. The exam may ask you to classify a scenario as generalized vs specialized, or to name the benefit (conversion + immunity).
Flashcard
Generalized vs specialized transduction — what's packaged?
Flashcard
What is the benefit of specialized transduction?
Q17–Q22Conjugation — process, F+ vs F−, end result, Hfr, and which is more efficient?
Answer
  • Conjugation = mating; genetic exchange requiring cell-to-cell contact (plasmid-encoded DNA exchange).
  • Process: donor has a conjugative (F) plasmid; sex pilus pairs the cells; TraI nicks the plasmid; transfer by rolling-circle replication → replicated in both cells so each ends with a complete plasmid.
  • F+ = has a non-integrated F plasmid (donor); F− = lacks the plasmid (recipient).
  • End result: two F+ cells (the recipient becomes F+). Once F+, surface receptors are altered, so the cell can no longer be a conjugate recipient or take up a second plasmid.
  • Hfr = F plasmid integrated into the chromosome → can mobilize chromosomal/genomic DNA; F transfers last, so the recipient stays F− (and, being F−, can still take up another plasmid).
  • More efficient (at transferring chromosomal genes): Hfr.
F-plus by F-minus conjugation: the pilus retracts and pairs the cells, the F plasmid is nicked in one strand by TraI, one strand transfers from the F-plus donor to the F-minus recipient while the F plasmid is simultaneously replicated by rolling-circle replication in the donor, the complementary strand is synthesized in the recipient, and both cells end up F-plus
F+ × F−: pilus pairs cells → F nicked → one strand transfers with rolling-circle replication → both cells end F+.
Hfr by F-minus conjugation: the integrated F plasmid is nicked in one strand, then F transfers followed by chromosomal DNA, the second strand is synthesized in recipient and donor, and because F transfers last the recipient remains F-minus while the donor stays Hfr
Hfr × F−: integrated F nicked → F transfers last, behind chromosomal DNA → recipient stays F−.
Explanation
Conjugation is the only transfer route needing physical contact — the sex pilus and a conjugative plasmid. The F+/Hfr contrast hinges on whether F is free or integrated. Free F (F+ × F−): the whole plasmid transfers, so the recipient becomes F+ → two F+ cells — and becoming F+ alters its surface receptors, so an F+ cell cannot act as a recipient or take up a second plasmid. Integrated F (Hfr): F drags chromosomal genes across, but because F transfers last, the recipient usually gets only chromosomal genes and stays F− — so, unlike an F+ cell, it can still take up another plasmid. That's exactly why Hfr is more efficient for moving chromosomal DNA. The exam may test the F+ vs Hfr outcome or the surface-receptor exclusion point.
Flashcard
F+ × F− vs Hfr × F− — what's the outcome for the recipient in each?
Flashcard
What nicks the F plasmid, and how is it transferred?
Flashcard
Why is an F+ cell unable to take up a second F plasmid?
Q23–Q24How do bacteria prevent gene transfer, and how does CRISPR work?
Q23 · Defenses (immune systems)
SystemMechanismEffect
Innate · Restriction endonucleasescut foreign DNA at specific sitesdegrade incoming phage / transformed / conjugated DNA
Innate · Phage exclusionvariant of the restriction systemrecognizes/modifies incoming DNA → blocks replication
Innate · Abortive infectionhost suicide via toxin–antitoxin (programmed cell death)cell dies → stops virion spread, protects the population
Adaptive · CRISPR-Cassequence-specific memory + cleavageseeks & destroys matching foreign nucleic acid
Q24 · How CRISPR works
  • Immunization (acquisition) — Cas recognizes the PAM in viral DNA → captures the adjacent protospacer → inserts it as a new spacer in the CRISPR array (repeats + spacers = memory bank).
  • Interference — the array is transcribed/processed into crRNAcrRNA:Cas recognizes the matching foreign DNA → Cas cleaves/destroys it. Requires the spacer to already be present.
CRISPR in two phases: (a) Immunization — viral DNA with a protospacer and PAM is recognized by a memorizing complex of Cas proteins, which inserts a new spacer between repeats in the bacterial/archaeal chromosome; (b) Interference — the CRISPR array is transcribed and processed into crRNA forming Cas cleavage complexes, foreign DNA is recognized by crRNA:Cas, and the Cas protein cuts and destroys the foreign DNA
(a) Immunization: Cas recognizes the PAM and inserts a new spacer. (b) Interference: crRNA:Cas recognizes foreign DNA and Cas cuts it.
Explanation
The defenses split by memory: innate systems (restriction enzymes, phage exclusion, abortive infection) act the same on any foreign DNA, while CRISPR is adaptive — it records past invaders as spacers and targets them specifically on return. That's why the two phases matter: immunization writes the memory (PAM-guided spacer capture), and interference uses it (crRNA-guided cutting). The exam may test the innate/adaptive split, the role of the PAM and spacer, or which phase requires a pre-existing spacer.
Flashcard
Name the innate (nonspecific) anti-gene-transfer defenses, and the adaptive one.
Flashcard
In CRISPR, what does Cas recognize to acquire a new spacer, and what guides cutting during interference?
Flashcard
Why does abortive infection protect the population even though the infected cell dies?

M3L3 — reinforcement quiz

Mutations + horizontal gene transfer. Answer each; missed ones can be retried.

0 / 12 correct

Module 3 · Lesson 4 — Viral Genetics

8 questions on Exam 2 · How viruses make mRNA & replicate their genomes. Complete.

Viral Genomes

Q1What do all archaeal viruses have in common, and what do most have?
Answer
  • All characterized archaeal viruses have DNA genomes (no RNA archaeal virus isolated to date).
  • Most are double-stranded and circular (only two known are single-stranded).
Explanation
The clean takeaway: archaeal viruses are a DNA-only group so far, and the default form is dsDNA, circular. Their genomes are smaller than bacteriophages, and they replicate in a way similar to eukaryotic viruses. The exam may test the "all = DNA / most = ds + circular" split directly, or contrast archaeal viruses with the RNA-containing viruses of other hosts.
Flashcard
What do all archaeal viruses share, and what is the most common genome form?

Viral DNA Replication

Q2Describe the ΦX174 genome, how it replicates, and the basic steps of rolling circle replication.
Answer
  • Genome: single-stranded DNA virus; small genome with overlapping genes; icosahedral virion. (Baltimore Class II.)
  • How it replicates: rolling circle replication — but first it makes a double-stranded replicative form (RF) from the ssDNA, and rolls off that.
  • Basic steps:
    1. Nickgene A protein nicks the + strand of the RF at the origin → free 3′ end.
    2. Roll & copy — DNA pol extends from the 3′ end, copying around the circular − strand template (new + strand).
    3. Displace — the original + strand is peeled off (displaced) as the polymerase rolls.
    4. One revolution = one genome's worth of displaced + strand.
    5. Cleave & circularize — gene A protein cleaves/ligates the displaced strand into a circle → one new plus-strand ssDNA genome; RF rolls again.
PhiX174 rolling circle replication: the double-stranded replicative form is nicked at the origin by gene A protein, a new plus strand is synthesized from the 3-prime end while the original plus strand is displaced and rolls off, and after one revolution gene A protein cleaves and ligates the displaced strand into one new plus-strand single-stranded DNA genome while the replicative form is recycled
Gene A protein nicks the RF → new + strand synthesized as the old + strand is displaced and rolls off → cleavage/ligation releases a new ssDNA genome; RF recycles.
Explanation
This is the payoff of Class II: because the genome is ssDNA, ΦX174 can't replicate directly — it first builds the double-stranded RF, then uses rolling circle to mass-produce single-stranded genomes off it. Gene A protein bookends the cycle — it nicks to start and cleaves/ligates to release each new circular genome. The exam may ask why a dsDNA intermediate is needed (ssDNA genome), what gene A protein does, or to order the steps.
Flashcard
Why does ΦX174 need a replicative form (RF) before rolling circle replication?
Flashcard
What does gene A protein do at the start and end of rolling circle replication?
Q3What are terminal repeats and concatemers, which virus forms them, and what is the general process?
Answer
  • Terminal repeats = the same sequence repeated at both ends of the linear genome (terminal redundancy).
  • Concatemer = a long DNA molecule of several genome copies linked end-to-end.
  • Virus: bacteriophage T7 — double-stranded DNA, Baltimore Class I (transcribes the − strand).
  • General process (concatemer formation):
    1. T7 replicates its linear DNA bidirectionally from an internal origin, leaving unreplicated terminal repeats at the ends.
    2. The terminal repeat of one molecule pairs with the matching repeat of another; DNA pol + ligase join them end-to-end → a concatemer (several genome units).
    3. A cutting enzyme makes single-stranded cuts and DNA pol fills in → individual mature T7 genomes, each with terminal repeats restored, ready to package.
Concatemer formation in bacteriophage T7: (a) pairing of unreplicated terminal repeats of two T7 molecules with DNA polymerase and ligase activity, (b) joining of the two molecules end-to-end to form a concatemer of repeated genome units, (c) a cutting enzyme makes single-stranded cuts and DNA polymerase completes the strands, regenerating mature T7 molecules each with terminal repeats
(a) Unreplicated terminal repeats pair → (b) molecules join into a concatemer → (c) a cutting enzyme + DNA pol regenerate mature T7 genomes with terminal repeats.
Explanation
Concatemers solve T7's linear-end problem: the very ends of a linear genome can't be fully replicated, so T7 uses its terminal repeats to splice copies end-to-end into one long concatemer, then a cutting enzyme chops it back into complete individual genomes. It's the same theme as ΦX174 — a virus-specific workaround for replicating its genome — just for linear dsDNA instead of a ssDNA circle. The exam may ask what a concatemer is, which virus forms them (T7), or to order the formation steps.
Flashcard
What is a concatemer, and which virus forms them during replication?
Flashcard
What role do terminal repeats play in concatemer formation?
Q4Lambda genome, how it replicates, and how that differs from bacterial replication?
Answer
  • Genome: linear double-stranded DNA virus; Baltimore Class I (transcribes the − strand).
  • How it replicates — cyclic DNA formation: on entering the host, lambda's cohesive "cos" ends (complementary single-stranded overhangs) base-pair, so the linear DNA cyclizes into a circle (sealed at the cos site). The circle then replicates by rolling circle replication.
  • Difference from bacterial replication: the bacterial chromosome is already circular and replicates bidirectionally (theta replication) from its origin. Lambda starts linear, so it must cyclize first, then uses rolling circle — not bidirectional theta.
Lambda phage replication and integration: (a) the linear lambda genome cyclizes at its cohesive cos ends to form a circle; (b) during lysogeny a site-specific endonuclease creates staggered ends at the att site and the lambda genome integrates into the host chromosome between gal and bio, with gaps closed by DNA ligase; (c) rolling circle replication of the lambda circle produces one lambda genome per revolution using RNA primers
(a) Linear genome cyclizes at the cohesive cos ends → (b) integration into host at the att site (lysogeny side-path) → (c) rolling circle replication of the circle.
Explanation
Lambda's whole trick is solving its "linear" problem before it can use a circle-based mechanism. The cohesive cos ends are complementary single strands, so they snap together and cyclize the genome — that step is "cyclic DNA formation." Only then can it roll, borrowing the same rolling circle ΦX174 uses. The contrast with bacteria is two-fold: bacteria start with a circle and go both directions (theta); lambda must build its circle, then goes one way around (rolling). The exam may ask how the linear genome circularizes (cos ends) or to contrast rolling circle vs bidirectional theta.
Flashcard
How does lambda's linear genome become a circle, and what replicates it?
Flashcard
How does lambda replication differ from bacterial chromosome replication?
Q5What is special about reoviruses, their replication type, where they replicate, and which animal virus replicates there?
Answer
  • Special: double-stranded RNA virus; Baltimore Class III (makes ssRNA / + strand).
  • Replication type: conservative replication — the only known genome to do this. Genomic dsRNA is synthesized only off the + strand: the replicase makes the − strand, which is used to form the dsRNA genome (parental duplex stays conserved).
  • Where: in the cytoplasm, inside the viral core / nucleocapsid (the genome never leaves the core).
  • Animal virus that replicates there (cytoplasm): Pox virus (replicates in the cytoplasm, not the nucleus).
Reovirus replication cycle: outer virion layers are removed in lysosomes, RNA replicase activity is triggered in the viral core, transcription within the core makes viral mRNAs that are translated in the host cytoplasm, genomic plus RNA is taken up by new viral cores, the minus strand is synthesized to give cores with a complete double-stranded genome, which mature in the endoplasmic reticulum and are released by budding or cell lysis
Replicase triggered in the core → transcription makes + RNA/mRNA → + RNA taken into new cores → − strand synthesized → cores with complete ± genome → maturation → release. All in the cytoplasm, inside the core.
Explanation
Reovirus is the oddball on two counts: it's the only genome known to replicate conservatively, and it does the whole thing inside its own core in the cytoplasm, so the dsRNA never gets exposed. Mechanistically the + strand is the template — the replicase builds the − strand on it to regenerate dsRNA — while the parental duplex is conserved. The "where" links to the next slide: Pox is the other virus that replicates in the cytoplasm rather than the nucleus. The exam may pair "conservative + only one" with reovirus, ask where it replicates, or ask which animal virus shares the cytoplasmic site (Pox).
Flashcard
What is unique about reovirus replication, and where does it occur?
Flashcard
Which animal virus replicates in the cytoplasm rather than the nucleus?
RecapThe four unique viral DNA/RNA replication strategies (Q2–Q5)
Comparison
StrategyVirusGenome / ClassKey mechanism
Rolling circle ΦX174 ssDNA, circular · Class II Makes a dsDNA replicative form (RF) first; gene A protein nicks the + strand, then cleaves/ligates each displaced strand into a new ssDNA genome.
Concatemer formation T7 linear dsDNA · Class I Terminal repeats let copies join end-to-end into a long concatemer; a cutting enzyme cuts it back into individual genomes (solves the linear-end problem).
Cyclic DNA formation Lambda (λ) linear dsDNA · Class I Cohesive cos ends base-pair → genome cyclizes → then replicates by rolling circle.
Conservative Reovirus dsRNA · Class III Only known genome to do this; replicates in the cytoplasm inside the viral core; replicase makes the − strand off the + strand.

Unique animal viruses (where): Pox replicates in the cytoplasm (not the nucleus) — same location as reovirus. Adenovirus uses leading-strand replication on both strands.

The pattern
Every one of these is a workaround for the same problem — how to fully copy a genome the host's machinery wasn't built for. Linear DNA can't replicate its ends, so T7 joins copies (concatemer) and lambda zips its ends shut (cyclize). Single-stranded or RNA genomes can't be copied directly, so ΦX174 builds a ds intermediate and reovirus carries its own replicase. If you can name the genome type, you can usually predict the strategy.
Flashcard
Match each virus to its replication strategy: ΦX174, T7, lambda, reovirus.

Viral Protein Synthesis

Q6What do polyomaviruses cause, and how?
Answer
  • Cause: tumors in small mammals (e.g., SV40, a circular dsDNA polyomavirus).
  • How: the viral DNA integrates into the host DNAtumor-inducing genes are transcribedtumor-induction proteins are made → these transform the cell to a tumor state.
Tumor virus transformation: circular tumor virus DNA infects a cell and integrates into the host DNA, the tumor-inducing genes are transcribed into tumor virus mRNA which is transported to the cytoplasm and translated into viral tumor-induction proteins that transform the cell to a tumor state
Tumor virus DNA integrates into host DNA → tumor-inducing genes transcribed → tumor-induction proteins → cell transformed to a tumor state.
Explanation
The key chain is integrate → transcribe → transform: the polyomavirus inserts its DNA into the host genome, the tumor-inducing genes get expressed, and the resulting tumor-induction proteins push the host cell into uncontrolled growth — the transformed / tumor state. The exam may ask what polyomaviruses cause (tumors in small mammals) or for the integration → transformation mechanism.
Flashcard
How does a polyomavirus turn a host cell cancerous?
Q7What must rhabdovirus do before it can replicate its genome, and why?
Answer
  • Must do first: its RNA genome must be transcribed by its replicase into + RNA, in two classes — (1) mRNAs encoding viral proteins, and (2) full-length + RNA as a template for new genomic − RNA.
  • Why: the genome is negative-sense (−) RNA (Rabies; Baltimore Class V), which ribosomes can't read — only + sense is mRNA — so it must make + RNA first.
Explanation
This is the sense/antisense rule in action: a − strand carries no directly usable message, so before rhabdovirus can make a single protein or copy its genome, its replicase must transcribe the − genome into + RNA. The exam may ask why a −RNA virus can't translate its genome directly, or what the replicase makes first.
Flashcard
Why must a negative-sense RNA virus transcribe before replicating?
Q8What do you expect to find in RNA viruses, and why?
Answer
  • Expect: a gene encoding RNA replicase (an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase).
  • Why: to replicate the viral RNA — the host has no enzyme to copy RNA from RNA, so the virus must encode its own (it makes − RNA off a + template, then + RNA off the − template).
Explanation
This is the unifying expectation for the whole RNA-virus group: because host cells only replicate DNA, any RNA virus has to bring or encode its own RNA replicase to copy its genome. The exam may ask what enzyme an RNA virus must encode, or why host enzymes can't do the job.
Flashcard
What enzyme must RNA viruses encode, and why?
Q9What came first, RNA or DNA viruses, and why?
Answer
  • RNA viruses came first.
  • Why — the RNA-world idea: RNA can do both jobs at oncestore genetic information (like DNA) and catalyze reactions (ribozymes, like protein enzymes) — so RNA could self-replicate before the DNA-and-protein system existed. DNA (more stable) and protein enzymes evolved later.
Explanation
This is a conceptual question (not on a slide). The logic: the earliest self-replicating systems only needed one molecule that could both encode and catalyze, and RNA fits — so RNA-based genomes, including RNA viruses, are considered more ancient than DNA viruses. The exam, if it asks, wants "RNA first, because RNA both stores information and catalyzes."
Flashcard
Which viruses likely came first, and what's the one-line justification?
Q10What is a polyprotein, how could you tell a virus makes them, and what cleaves it?
Answer
  • Polyprotein = a single giant protein translated from one long ORF, then cleaved post-translationally into smaller functional proteins.
  • How to tell: the genome is translated as one continuous product, yet the virus needs many proteins — i.e., more proteins than genes/start codons (one big protein being cut up). Classic case: + ssRNA viruses like poliovirus.
  • What cleaves it: a protease.
Explanation
Some viruses (especially + ssRNA ones whose genome is already mRNA) get translated in one continuous read, producing a single oversized protein. A protease then snips it into the individual enzymes and structural proteins. The "how to tell" is the giveaway: protein count exceeds gene count. The exam may ask for the definition, the protease step, or to recognize a polyprotein strategy from a description.
Flashcard
What is a polyprotein, and what processes it into functional proteins?
Q11What do you expect to find in retroviruses that is unique to them?
Answer
  • Reverse transcriptase — it synthesizes DNA from an RNA template (RNA → DNA), the reverse of normal transcription. (Baltimore Class VI.)
Explanation
Retroviruses break the usual DNA → RNA direction: their reverse transcriptase turns the RNA genome into DNA, which can then integrate into the host genome. That enzyme is the unique, defining feature. The exam may ask what's unique about retroviruses, or which enzyme makes DNA from RNA.
Flashcard
What enzyme is unique to retroviruses, and what does it do?
SummaryM3L4 — full virus comparison
All viruses at a glance
VirusGenomeClassStrategy / what's specialKey detail
Archaeal virusesDNA (most ds, circular)genome composition factno RNA isolated yet; smaller than phages
ΦX174ssDNA, circularIIRolling circle (via dsDNA RF)gene A protein nicks/cleaves; overlapping genes
T7linear dsDNAIConcatemer formationterminal repeats join copies, then cut back into genomes
Lambda (λ)linear dsDNAICyclic DNA formation → rolling circlecohesive cos ends cyclize the genome
ReovirusdsRNAIIIConservative replicationonly genome to do it; cytoplasm, inside the core
PoxdsDNAIcytoplasmic replicationreplicates in cytoplasm, not nucleus
Polyomavirus (SV40)circular dsDNAItransforms cells → tumorsintegrates; makes tumor-induction proteins
Rhabdovirus (Rabies)−ssRNAVmust transcribe + RNA first (replicase)− genome can't be translated directly
Poliovirus+ssRNAIVPolyprotein (one ORF → cleaved)+ RNA is mRNA; protease cleaves; VPg
Retrovirus+ssRNAVIReverse transcriptase (RNA → DNA)unique RT enzyme; integrates as DNA
The whole lesson in one idea
Read this table by genome type → strategy. DNA phages solve copying problems structurally (rolling circle, concatemer, cyclization); RNA viruses all need their own replicase and differ by sense (+ is ready to translate, − must be transcribed first); and the special cases — tumor induction (polyoma), polyproteins (polio), reverse transcriptase (retro) — are each one virus's signature trick. Name the genome, predict the strategy.
Flashcard
Which Baltimore class is each: ΦX174, T7/lambda, reovirus, rhabdovirus, poliovirus, retrovirus?

M3L4 — reinforcement quiz

Viral genetics: genomes, replication strategies, and protein synthesis. Answer each; missed ones can be retried.

0 / 12 correct

Module 4 · Lesson 1 — Viral Diversity

13 review questions · Viral classification & diversity. Complete.

Q1Describe the 7 classes of the Baltimore Scheme.
The seven classes
ClassGenomeRoute to mRNA / key stepExample
IdsDNAtranscribe the − strand directlyT4, T7, λ, herpes
IIssDNA (+)first make a dsDNA replicative form, then transcribeΦX174, M13, parvovirus
IIIdsRNAreplicase makes the + strand (mRNA)reovirus, rotavirus, phage φ6
IV+ ssRNAgenome IS mRNA — translated directlypoliovirus, coronavirus, MS2
V− ssRNAreplicase makes the + strand firstrabies (rhabdovirus), influenza
VI+ ssRNA (retrovirus)reverse transcriptaseDNA intermediateHIV, mouse leukemia virus
VIIdsDNA (pararetro)replicates via an RNA intermediate + reverse transcriptaseHepatitis B
The Baltimore Scheme: Class I and VII are dsDNA viruses, Class II is ssDNA (+), Class III is dsRNA, Class IV is ssRNA (+), Class V is ssRNA (−), and Class VI is ssRNA (+) retrovirus; arrows show each class's route to + mRNA — DNA classes transcribe the minus strand, Class II makes a dsDNA replicative form first, Class IV is used directly as mRNA, Classes III and V transcribe a plus strand, and Class VI uses reverse transcription through a dsDNA intermediate
Each class is defined by how its genome reaches + mRNA. DNA viruses (I, II, VII) transcribe; RNA viruses (III–VI) differ by strand sense; VI and VII use reverse transcriptase.
The organizing idea
Every class is defined by how many steps the genome is from + mRNA. DNA classes (I, II, VII) go through transcription; RNA classes (III–VI) differ by sense — +ssRNA (IV) is ready to translate, while −ssRNA (V) and dsRNA (III) need a replicase to make + strand first. The two reverse-transcriptase classes bracket the scheme: VI (RNA genome → DNA) and VII (DNA genome → via RNA). The exam asks you to place a virus into a class from its name, its genome description, or its genome→mRNA route.
Flashcard
Which classes use reverse transcriptase, and how do they differ?
Flashcard
Which single class has a genome that is already mRNA?
Baltimore Scheme — practice drill 0 / 13
Q2–Q4Viral naming — what do family vs. genus names end in? Given a name, identify and organize its rank.
The four ranks
RankNaming ruleExample (HIV lineage)
Familyends in -viridaeRetroviridae
Genusends in -virusLentivirus
Speciesa common name (viruses sharing the same genetic information + host)Human immunodeficiency virus
Subspeciesdesignated by a numberHIV-1, HIV-2
Two worked viral naming lineages: Retroviridae (family) to Lentivirus (genus) to Human immunodeficiency virus (species) to HIV-1, HIV-2 (subspecies); and Herpesviridae (family) to Herpesvirus (genus) to Human herpes virus (species) to HHV-1, HHV-2, HHV-3 (subspecies)
The suffix names the rank: -viridae = family, -virus = genus; species get common names, subspecies get numbers.
How the exam tests it
The ending is the giveaway: anything ending -viridae is a family, anything ending -virus is a genus. Unlike cellular organisms, viral species use common names rather than Latin binomials, and subspecies are just numbered. So if you're handed a name, read the suffix to call the rank; if you're handed a jumbled set (e.g., Lentivirus, HIV-1, Retroviridae, HIV), order them family → genus → species → subspecies.
Flashcard
Viral family names end in ___; genus names end in ___.
Flashcard
How are viral species named, and how are subspecies designated?
Flashcard · application
Put in rank order: Lentivirus, HIV-1, Retroviridae, Human immunodeficiency virus.
Q5What is unique about the M13 bacteriophage — how does it attach, how does it release, and what kind of infection does it cause?
M13 — a filamentous ssDNA phage (Class II)
  • What's unique: a filamentous phage with helical symmetry (circular ssDNA, Class II) that is released without lysing the host.
  • How it attaches: to the host pilus.
  • How it releases: extruded through the membrane without lysiscoat protein covers the DNA as it exits. Because the cell isn't killed, there is no intracellular accumulation and the cells grow without forming plaques.
  • Infection type: a chronic (persistent) infection — the host keeps growing and producing virus.
Why this is the exam's favorite contrast
M13 is the counterexample to "phage = lyse and kill." Because it is extruded without lysis, the infection is chronic rather than acute, the cells keep dividing, and you see no plaques. The exam pairs each behavior with its cause: it attaches to the pilus, and the coat protein wraps the DNA on the way out — so the host keeps living and producing virus instead of bursting.
Flashcard
How is M13 released, and what does that do to the infection type?
Flashcard
What does M13 attach to, and why do infected cells form no plaques?
Q6Describe the lambda (λ) bacteriophage — genome, replication cycle, and the cI / Cro balance.
λ — linear dsDNA, temperate (Class I)
  • Genome: linear dsDNA, with a head-and-tail morphology.
  • Lifestyle: a temperate phage — it can run either cycle:
CycleWhat happens
Lyticreplicates as long, linear concatemers → cut at the cos sites → packaged into phage heads → tail added → lysis.
Lysogenicgenome integrates into the E. coli chromosome at the att site via lambda integrase (now a prophage); later induction can flip it to lytic.
The cI / Cro switch
ProteinEffect
cI (lambda repressor)represses lytic → drives lysogeny
Croactivates lytic

Whichever repressor accumulates first controls the outcome. Loop: cICro, Cro ⊣ CII, CII → cI.

Lambda infection decision diagram: on the left, when cIII, cII, and cI stay low, Cro is not repressed and the cell undergoes lysis (lytic cycle); on the right, when cIII and cII are high, cI accumulates and represses Cro, producing lysogeny. Micrographs show an E. coli cell with lambda virions, a cell lysing to release new virions, and a lysogenic cell.
Low cIII/cII/cI → Cro wins → lysis; high cIII/cII → cI accumulates and represses Cro → lysogeny.
How the exam frames it
Lambda is the model temperate phage, so the question is always "which cycle, and what decides?" In the lytic route the genome is made as concatemers and chopped at the cos sites for packaging; in the lysogenic route it parks in the host at the att site using lambda integrase. The decision is a race between two regulators: cI shuts lytic down (lysogeny) while Cro switches it on — and whoever builds up first wins.
Flashcard
What genome and lifestyle does lambda have?
Flashcard
In lambda, what do cI and Cro do, and what decides the cycle?
Flashcard
How is the lytic genome processed before packaging?
Q7Polyomavirus (SV40): permissive vs. nonpermissive host — what happens in each?
SV40 — a dsDNA tumor virus of small mammals
Host typeWhat the virus doesOutcome
Permissivecompletes its replication cyclevirion released after lysis (a productive infection)
Nonpermissivecannot complete replication → DNA integrates into the host genometransformationloss of growth inhibitionmalignancy (tumor)
The logic to hold onto
Whether SV40 lyses or transforms depends entirely on the host. A permissive host lets the cycle finish, so new virions are released by lysis. A nonpermissive host blocks completion — the viral DNA instead integrates, and its products drive transformation: the cell loses growth inhibition and turns malignant. That second path is exactly why polyomavirus is studied as a tumor virus — no progeny, but a cancerous cell.
Flashcard
What happens to polyomavirus in a permissive host?
Flashcard
What happens in a nonpermissive host, and why does it matter?
Q8What do most archaeal viruses look like?
The headline answer
  • Most infect hyperthermophilic Crenarchaeota (think acidic hot springs).
  • All archaeal viruses have DNA genomesalmost all dsDNA and circular.
  • They show unusual, diverse morphologies — the hallmark being spindle-shaped (lemon-like) virions, plus rods and filaments.
Example morphotypes (from the slide)
VirusShape / trait
SSVspindle-shaped virions in rosettes; acidic hot springs
SIFVrigid helical rods, linear DNA
ATVdevelops without a host, growing extended tails; lysogenic
PAV1released without lysis, likely by budding
ACVssDNA, filamentous (coil-shaped)
What the exam wants you to say
If asked what most archaeal viruses look like, lead with two things: they infect hyperthermophilic Crenarchaeota, and they have strange morphologies you don't see elsewhere — classically spindle-shaped, along with rods and filaments. The unifying genetic fact is that they are all DNA viruses, and almost all are dsDNA and circular. The specific names (SSV, SIFV, ATV…) are just illustrations of that shape diversity.
Flashcard
What do most archaeal viruses infect, and what's their signature shape?
Flashcard
What kind of genome do all archaeal viruses share?
Q9What protein can you always expect to find produced in all RNA viruses?
The answer

RNA replicase — an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRp).

Why it must be there
Host cells have no enzyme that copies RNA from an RNA template — they only make RNA from DNA. So any virus with an RNA genome must bring or encode its own RNA replicase to replicate. One nuance for the exam: retroviruses are the classic twist — instead of an RNA replicase they carry reverse transcriptase (an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase), which is exactly what sets them apart from every other RNA virus.
Flashcard
What protein is found in all RNA viruses, and why?
Flashcard
Which RNA viruses are the exception, and what do they use instead?
Q10Compare and contrast Coronavirus and Poliovirus — what's the same, what's different?
Same
  • Both are + ssRNA viruses — Class IV, so the genome acts directly as mRNA.
Different
FeatureCoronavirusPoliovirus
Sizelargesmall
Envelopeenveloped, with glycoprotein spikesnaked (non-enveloped), icosahedral
Diseaserespiratory
Replicationin the cytoplasm, assembled in the Golgi, released at the surface
How to answer cleanly
Start with the shared identity: both are Class IV +ssRNA viruses whose genome is read directly as mRNA. Then split on structure: coronavirus is large, enveloped with glycoprotein spikes, and is a respiratory virus assembled in the Golgi; poliovirus is small, naked, and icosahedral. The envelope is the cleanest single distinguishing feature.
Flashcard
What do Coronavirus and Poliovirus have in common?
Flashcard
What's the single cleanest difference between them?
Q11What is unique about influenza that causes new strain development each year?
The key answer
  • Influenza has a segmented genome (it's −ssRNA, enveloped, pleiomorphic).
  • That segmentation enables antigenic shift: when two strains infect the same cell simultaneously, their segments reassort → a hybrid / unique strain.
Surface proteins
ProteinRole
Hemagglutinin (HA)triggers the immune system (host interaction)
Neuraminidase (NA)targets the host membrane

Released by budding.

Cutaway diagram of an influenza virion: a pleiomorphic enveloped particle studded with neuraminidase and hemagglutinin spikes; inside are the RNA genome in eight separate segments, along with RNA replicase and an RNA endonuclease.
Note the genome in eight separate segments (the basis for reassortment/antigenic shift), the HA and NA surface spikes, and the packaged RNA replicase.
The mechanism to name
The thing that makes influenza change yearly is its segmented genome. Because the genome comes in separate pieces, if two different strains co-infect one cell, the pieces can reassort like shuffling two decks into a new hand — producing a novel strain the population has no immunity to. That whole-segment swap is antigenic shift, and it's why a new flu shot is needed each season.
Flashcard
What feature of influenza drives new strains, and by what process?
Flashcard
Name influenza's two surface proteins and their roles.
Q12What is unique about retroviruses compared to other RNA viruses?
What sets them apart (Class VI)
  • They carry reverse transcriptase and convert their RNA genome into DNA — every other RNA virus stays RNA (uses RNA replicase, never makes DNA).
  • That dsDNA has long terminal repeats (LTRs) used to integrate into the host genome.
  • Also distinctive: enveloped and carry two copies of the genome; thought to be of ancient origin (RNA-to-DNA transition).
The one-line distinction
Every RNA virus has to copy its genome, but only the retrovirus turns that genome into DNA using reverse transcriptase. The new DNA carries long terminal repeats that let it integrate into the host chromosome, so the virus becomes a permanent part of the cell — something no RNA-replicase virus can do. This is exactly the RNA → DNA step the host can't perform, which is why the virus must supply the enzyme itself.
Flashcard
What makes retroviruses unique among RNA viruses?
Flashcard
What do the long terminal repeats (LTRs) do?
Q13Subviral agents: viroids vs. prions — what is each, what does each infect, and what's the MAVS benefit?
What is a subviral agent?

An infectious agent simpler than a virus — it's missing a core component. A viroid is nucleic acid only (no protein); a prion is protein only (no nucleic acid).

Viroids vs. prions
ViroidPrion
Made ofnaked RNA, no protein (smallest known pathogen)infectious protein, no nucleic acid
Infectsplantsanimals — brain/nervous tissue
How it harmsinterferes with plant regulatory RNAs; growth-related diseasemisfolds normal proteininsoluble amyloids destroy neural tissue (BSE, CJD, scrapie, CWD)
Benefit of the MAVS prion

MAVS aggregation in humans is a beneficial prion-like behavior: it triggers interferon production in response to viruses — part of the antiviral immune response.

The clean contrast
Both are subviral because each lacks something a true virus has. A viroid is RNA with no protein and infects plants; a prion is protein with no nucleic acid and attacks nervous tissue by forcing other proteins to misfold into amyloids. Not all prion-like behavior is harmful, though — MAVS aggregation is a useful version that switches on interferon to fight viral infection.
Flashcard
How do viroids and prions differ in composition and host?
Flashcard
What is a benefit of the MAVS prion?

M4L1 — reinforcement quiz

Viral diversity: classification, naming, and the model viruses. Exam-style multiple choice — missed ones can be retried.

0 / 19 correct

Module 4 · Lesson 2 — Metabolic Diversity

17 review questions · Carbon fixation, phototrophy, chemotrophy, fermentation & syntrophy. Complete.

Calvin Cycle
Q1The Calvin Cycle — what organisms use it, how would you recognize one, and what's it for?
The main CO₂-fixation pathway
  • What it's for: the most widespread CO₂-fixation pathway — it fixes CO₂ into organic carbon for biosynthesis.
  • Who uses it: oxygenic phototrophs (cyanobacteria, algae, plants), purple bacteria, and most aerobic chemolithotrophs.
  • How to recognize it: the cell contains carboxysomesproteinaceous microcompartments holding Rubisco that protect it from oxygen.
The exam's recognition cue
The "how would you know by looking" answer is carboxysomes: those Rubisco-packed microcompartments are the structural tell that a cell runs the Calvin cycle. Its job is simply CO₂ fixation — turning inorganic carbon into biomass — and it's the most widespread fixation route, spanning oxygenic phototrophs, purple bacteria, and aerobic chemolithotrophs. Rubisco is oxygen-sensitive, which is exactly why it's walled off inside carboxysomes.
Flashcard
How could you tell, by looking at a cell, that it uses the Calvin cycle?
Flashcard
What does the Calvin cycle do, and who uses it?
Phototrophic Pathways
Q2Why would an organism have both bacteriochlorophylls and chlorophylls?
The answer

Because different pigments absorb different wavelengths of light. Carrying both bacteriochlorophylls and chlorophylls lets the organism capture a broader range of the light spectrum — harvesting more light energy than a single pigment could.

The principle underneath
Each pigment is tuned to absorb a specific band of wavelengths. By holding more than one type, a cell widens its absorption range and pulls in light it would otherwise miss. The same principle works at the community level: because different pigments grab different wavelengths, organisms with different pigments can coexist in the same habitat without competing for the exact same light.
Flashcard
Why carry two pigment types instead of one?
Q3What allows green sulfur bacteria to absorb light in low, deep waters?
The answer

Chlorosomes — their large, highly efficient light-harvesting antenna structures.

Why this works at depth
Chlorosomes are the photocomplexes unique to green (sulfur) bacteria. They are oversized antennae packed with huge numbers of bacteriochlorophylls, which makes them extraordinarily efficient at capturing light at very low intensities. That efficiency is exactly what lets green sulfur bacteria live deep in the water column, where almost no light penetrates.
Flashcard
What structure lets green sulfur bacteria photosynthesize in deep, dim water?
Q4What pigment would tell you the organism you're observing is a cyanobacterium?
The answer

Phycobiliproteins (phycobilins).

Why it's the tell
Phycobiliproteins are the light-harvesting pigment system characteristic of cyanobacteria (and red algae chloroplasts) — red and blue-green bilins bound to protein. Spotting them is the giveaway you're looking at a cyanobacterium, since the other groups rely on chlorophylls, bacteriochlorophylls, or carotenoids instead.
Flashcard
Which pigment identifies a cyanobacterium?
Q5Observing an organism doing photosynthesis — one way to know if it's anoxygenic or oxygenic?
The observable tell

Check whether it produces oxygen. Oxygenic splits water as its electron donor, releasing O₂ as waste; anoxygenic uses another donor (e.g., H₂S) and makes no oxygen.

OxygenicAnoxygenic
Electron donorwater (H₂O)another donor (e.g., H₂S)
O₂ produced?yes (waste product)no
Photosystems2 (PSII splits water)1
The clean answer
The one observable cue is oxygen production. If the organism releases O₂, it's oxygenic — it's pulling electrons from water, which only the two-photosystem setup (PSII splitting water) can do. If no oxygen appears, it's anoxygenic: it runs a single photosystem on some other electron donor like H₂S, with no O₂ to release.
Flashcard
What single observation distinguishes oxygenic from anoxygenic photosynthesis?
Flashcard
How many photosystems does each type have?
Q6Which photosynthesis came first on Earth — and how do you know?
The answer

Anoxygenic photosynthesis was first.

How we know: oxygenic phototrophs (cyanobacteria) run two photosystems, and they acquired both via horizontal gene transfer. Since anoxygenic phototrophs each carry only one photosystem, the single-photosystem (anoxygenic) form is the ancestor; the two-photosystem (oxygenic) form was assembled later by combining two pre-existing systems.

The reasoning to give
The tell is the photosystem count. Anoxygenic phototrophs have a single photosystem (FeS-type or Q-type); oxygenic cyanobacteria have both. Because cyanobacteria picked up both photosystems by horizontal gene transfer, the two-photosystem oxygenic machinery had to be built from earlier single-photosystem parts — so anoxygenic photosynthesis must have come first.
Flashcard
Which photosynthesis is older, and what's the evidence?
Q7What happens to an oxygenic organism if one of its photosystems is down?
The answer
  • If PSII is blocked, some oxygenic organisms can run on PSI alone — meaning they switch to anoxygenic photosynthesis.
  • Since PSII is what splits water, they can no longer use water as the donor (no O₂), so the reducing power for CO₂ must come from another donor — e.g., H₂S in cyanobacteria.
The logic
PSII is the photosystem that splits water into oxygen and electrons. Knock it out and the cell loses both its oxygen output and its water-derived electrons — but it still has PSI. Running PSI alone is exactly what an anoxygenic phototroph does, so the organism effectively reverts to anoxygenic photosynthesis and must pull reducing power from a different electron donor like H₂S.
Flashcard
If PSII is knocked out in an oxygenic organism, what can it do?
Chemotrophic Pathways
Q8Sox system — functions of SoxYZ, SoxB, and SoxCD, and what happens if any is mutated?
What the Sox system does

It oxidizes reduced sulfur compounds (H₂S, S⁰, thiosulfate, sulfite) all the way to sulfate (SO₄²⁻), funneling electrons to the ETC for energy (these colorless sulfur bacteria also release H⁺, so they're acidophilic).

ProteinFunction
SoxYZcarries the sulfur (sulfur-carrier protein)
SoxBoxidizing enzyme
SoxCDdehydrogenase
If any is mutated

The pathway breaks at that step — sulfur can't be fully oxidized to sulfate, so electrons never reach the ETC and the cell can't conserve energy from sulfur oxidation. Each protein is a required link in the chain.

How to think about it
The Sox system is an assembly line for oxidizing sulfur to sulfate. SoxYZ is the carrier that holds the sulfur substrate; SoxB and the SoxCD dehydrogenase carry out oxidation steps that strip electrons off and send them to the ETC. Knock out any one and the line stalls there — no full oxidation, no electron flow, no energy. The exam may give you one mutant and ask what fails: the answer is always "sulfur oxidation halts at that step."
Flashcard
Match each: SoxYZ, SoxB, SoxCD.
Flashcard
What happens if a Sox protein is mutated/nonfunctional?
Q9What microbes live in iron-filled, acid-polluted environments — and what's the giveaway they're present?
The microbes — acidophilic iron oxidizers
  • Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans, Leptospirillum ferrooxidans, and Ferroplasma.
  • They oxidize Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺ as chemolithotrophs (fixing CO₂ via the Calvin cycle), and are acidophilic — some grow at pH < 0.
The giveaway

Extensive ferric iron (Fe³⁺) precipitates — the rust-colored deposits — together with acidic (low-pH) water. Because Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺ precipitates and lowers pH, both signs appear together.

Why those two signs go together
These bacteria make a living by oxidizing Fe²⁺ to Fe³⁺. The Fe³⁺ precipitates out of the water (the rust-orange staining) and the reaction releases acidity, which is why the same microbes that leave iron precipitates also drive the pH down. So in the field, the tell-tale combination is orange iron precipitate + very acidic water — classic acid mine drainage.
Flashcard
Name iron-oxidizing microbes of acidic environments.
Flashcard
What's the giveaway these microbes are present?
Q10How do you tell an ammonia oxidizer from a nitrite oxidizer by its name?
The two steps of nitrification
GroupReactionEnzymesNamed
Ammonia oxidizersNH₃ → NO₂⁻ammonia monooxygenase + hydroxylamine oxidoreductase"Nitroso-"
(Nitrosomonas, Nitrosopumilus, Nitrosospira)
Nitrite oxidizersNO₂⁻ → NO₃⁻oxidoreductase"Nitro-"
(Nitrobacter, Nitrospira)

The rule: "Nitroso-" = ammonia oxidizer; "Nitro-" (no -so) = nitrite oxidizer.

How to lock it in
Nitrification runs in two handoffs: ammonia → nitrite → nitrate, done by two different groups. The first group oxidizes ammonia to nitrite and carries the longer "Nitroso-" prefix; the second oxidizes nitrite to nitrate and carries the shorter "Nitro-" prefix. So on the exam, the extra -so- syllable maps to the earlier, ammonia step — see a genus, find the prefix, name its substrate.
Flashcard
Nitrosomonas vs. Nitrobacter — which oxidizes what?
Flashcard
Which enzymes do ammonia oxidizers use?
Q11What's a beneficial use of nitrate-reducing microbes?
The answer

Nitrate reducers (denitrifiers like Pseudomonas and Paracoccus) run dissimilative anaerobic respiration on nitrate. The benefit: they remove fixed nitrogen — stripping nitrate from fertilizer runoff — which makes them useful for bioremediation and water treatment.

Bonus pollutant-clearers from the same lecture: Dehalobacter / Dehalococcoides dechlorinate pollutants, and Desulfotomaculum detoxifies arsenic.

Why it's useful
Excess fixed nitrogen — especially nitrate from agricultural runoff — pollutes water and drives algal blooms. Nitrate reducers use that nitrate as their electron acceptor and convert it to nitrogen gases that leave the water, so we harness them in water treatment and bioremediation to pull nitrate out. The exam may frame this as "how could you remove nitrate from contaminated water?" — the answer is these denitrifying microbes.
Flashcard
Beneficial use of nitrate-reducing microbes?
Q12What are the environmental hazards of nitrate reduction?
The answer

The nitrogen oxide products of denitrification cause three problems:

  • Acid rain
  • Ozone consumption (depletion)
  • Greenhouse gas — N₂O (nitrous oxide)
The contrast to hold onto
This is the downside of the same process that was beneficial in Q11. Pulling nitrate out of water is good, but the nitrogen oxides released along the way are atmospheric trouble: they feed acid rain, drive ozone consumption, and N₂O is a potent greenhouse gas. The exam may pair these as "benefit vs. hazard" of nitrate reduction — Q11 is the benefit, Q12 is the cost.
Flashcard
Three environmental hazards of nitrate reduction?
Q13What is disproportionation?
The answer

A single compound is simultaneously oxidized AND reduced, splitting into two separate products — one more oxidized, one more reduced.

Desulfovibrio / Wolinella:
thiosulfate (S₂O₃²⁻)H₂S + SO₄²⁻
The key idea
Normally a reaction has a separate electron donor and acceptor. In disproportionation, one molecule plays both roles: part of it gets oxidized and part gets reduced. With thiosulfate, the sulfur ends up both as reduced H₂S and oxidized sulfate. The exam tell: one starting compound → two products at different oxidation states.
Flashcard
Define disproportionation (with an example).
Fermentation
Q14Homofermentative vs. heterofermentative — how do you tell them apart?
Identify by the products
TypeProductsATP
Homofermentativelactic acid only (one product)2 ATP
Heterofermentativelactate + ethanol + CO₂ (multiple products)1 ATP

Both are carried out by Gram-positive, non-sporulating bacteria.

The tell
The names give it away: homo- means "same," so a homofermentative reaction yields a single product — lactic acid — and nets 2 ATP. Hetero- means "different," so a heterofermentative reaction yields several products — lactate, ethanol, and CO₂ — but only 1 ATP. On the exam you'll be handed a reaction and asked to classify it: count the products — one means homo, many means hetero.
Flashcard
Homofermentative vs. heterofermentative products & ATP?
Q15What is unique about Pyrococcus furiosus?
The answer

Pyrococcus furiosus is a hyperthermophilic archaeon that obtains 4 ATP from a modified glycolysis — double the usual 2 ATP of standard glycolysis.

Why it stands out
Ordinary glycolysis nets 2 ATP per glucose. Pyrococcus furiosus runs a modified version of glycolysis that squeezes out 4 ATP instead — a notable efficiency gain for an organism living at extreme temperatures. The exam hook is the number: 4 ATP from modified glycolysis, and that it's a hyperthermophilic archaeon.
Flashcard
What's unique about Pyrococcus furiosus?
Q16Primary vs. secondary fermentation — what's the difference?
What gets fermented
TypeSubstrateExample
Primaryferments the original substrate (carbs, protein, fat, monomers) → reduced products like H₂ + CO₂
Secondaryferments the products of another fermentationPropionibacterium: lactate → propionic acid; Clostridium kluyveri: ethanol + acetate → butyrate
The relationship
Think of it as a two-stage chain. Primary fermentation works on the original feedstock — sugars, amino acids, fatty acids — and excretes reduced end-products. Secondary fermentation then feeds on those end-products, fermenting someone else's leftovers (lactate → propionic acid, or ethanol + acetate → butyrate). The exam tell: is the substrate a raw nutrient (primary) or itself a fermentation product (secondary)?
Flashcard
Primary vs. secondary fermentation?
Syntrophy
Q17What is syntrophy?
The answer

Two microbes cooperate to carry out a reaction neither can do alone, linked by interspecies electron transfer. Most syntrophic reactions are secondary fermentations.

MechanismHow electrons move
DIET (direct)direct contact via nanowires
MIET (mediated)diffusion of metabolic products between cells
The core idea
Some reactions are energetically impossible for one organism unless a partner constantly removes the product. In syntrophy, two species split the job and hand off electrons — either directly through nanowires (DIET) or by diffusing a shared intermediate (MIET), classically interspecies H₂ transfer. Because the partner is usually fermenting another microbe's products, most syntrophy is secondary fermentation — which ties this back to Q16.
Flashcard
Define syntrophy; DIET vs. MIET?

M4L2 — reinforcement quiz

Metabolic diversity: carbon fixation, phototrophy, chemotrophy, fermentation & syntrophy. Exam-style multiple choice — missed ones can be retried.

0 / 22 correct

Module 4 · Lesson 3 — Phylogeny & Morphological Diversity

8 review questions · Phylogenetic diversity, cyanobacteria, microbial predators, spirochetes & prosthecate bacteria. Complete.

Phylogenetic Diversity
Q1What are the 3 reasons for commonalities between divergent organisms?
The answer
  • Gene loss — the trait was lost during divergence over time (both descended from an ancestor that had it).
  • Convergent evolution — the trait evolved independently in two or more lineages via nonhomologous genes.
  • Horizontal gene transfer — the genes encoding the trait were exchanged between distantly related lineages.
Why it matters
When two distantly related microbes share a trait, you can't assume simple common ancestry. These three mechanisms explain shared traits across a tree: gene loss (the trait was ancestral and disappeared in some lineages), convergent evolution (independent origins via different genes), and horizontal gene transfer (the gene jumped between branches). The exam may give a scenario and ask which mechanism fits.
Flashcard
Three reasons divergent organisms share a trait?
Cyanobacteria
Q2Describe the cellular structures of cyanobacteria (including akinetes and motility).
The structures
  • Cell walls contain peptidoglycan (Gram-negative-type envelope).
  • Akinetes = resting structures with a thickened cell wall (survive stress/dormancy).
  • Hormogonia = short motile filaments that facilitate dispersal during stress.
  • Gas vesicles = buoyancy control for light-intensity positioning.
Motility

No flagella, but motility still varies: gliding motility, phototaxis and chemotaxis, and Synechococcus has non-flagellated swimming motility.

Two structures to keep straight
Don't confuse the two filament/cell types: akinetes are dormant survival cells (thick wall), while hormogonia are motile dispersal filaments. The headline on motility is that cyanobacteria have no flagella yet still move — by gliding, by taxis toward light/chemicals, and in Synechococcus by a flagella-independent swimming. Gas vesicles let them float to the right light depth.
Flashcard
Akinete vs. hormogonium?
Flashcard
How do cyanobacteria move without flagella?
Q3Describe the ecological diversity of cyanobacteria — abundance, importance, and freshwater danger.
Abundance & importance
  • Most abundant ocean phototrophs = Synechococcus and Prochlorococcus.
  • They drive ~80% of marine photosynthesis (≈35% of total global photosynthesis).
  • Nitrogen fixation is the dominant input of new nitrogen in the oceans.
  • Widely distributed; more tolerant of extremes than eukaryotic algae.
Freshwater danger

They form freshwater blooms that release potent neurotoxins, toxic blooms, and geosmins (taste/odor compounds) into water.

The two-sided story
Ecologically cyanobacteria are primary producers and nitrogen suppliersSynechococcus and Prochlorococcus alone account for most marine photosynthesis, and their N₂ fixation feeds the ocean's nitrogen budget. The flip side is in freshwater: toxic blooms producing neurotoxins and geosmins that foul drinking water. The exam may contrast their global importance against the bloom hazard.
Flashcard
Most abundant ocean phototrophs & their importance?
Flashcard
Freshwater danger of cyanobacteria?
Microbial Predators
Q4What are the different types of microbial predators? Give examples of each.
Classify by WHERE they attack
TypeHow it preysExamples
Epibioticattach to the prey surface, draw nutrients from its cytoplasm/periplasmVampirococcus, Vampirovibrio
Cytoplasmicinvade the host cell, replicate in the cytoplasm, consume from withinDaptobacter
Periplasmicinvade and replicate in the periplasmBdellovibrio
Socialswarm and collectively feed on lysed preyLysobacter, Myxococcus
The sorting rule
The categories key on where the predator sits relative to its prey: on the surface (epibiotic), inside the cytoplasm (cytoplasmic), inside the periplasm (periplasmic), or as a cooperative swarm outside (social). The review doc says to identify a type from a description or example, so anchor each example to its location: Bdellovibrio = periplasmic, Myxococcus = social, Daptobacter = cytoplasmic, Vampirococcus = epibiotic.
Flashcard
Match: epibiotic, cytoplasmic, periplasmic, social — to an example.
Q5Describe Bdellovibrio — appearance, target, mechanism, replication site, and habitat.
The answer
  • Looks like: small, highly motile, curved cells; obligate aerobes (oxidize amino acids and acetate).
  • Targets: Gram-negative bacteria, using host cytoplasmic contents as nutrients.
  • Mechanism: attaches → penetrates → replicates in the periplasm, forming a spherical bdelloplast.
  • Found in: aquatic habitats, soils, and sewage.
The signature
Bdellovibrio is the classic periplasmic predator: it bores through the Gram-negative outer membrane, sets up shop in the periplasm, and remodels the prey into a rounded bdelloplast while it replicates. The exam tell is the trio: curved/highly motile + attacks Gram-negatives + bdelloplast in the periplasm.
Flashcard
Bdellovibrio: target, replication site, structure formed?
Q6Describe Myxobacteria — appearance and what makes them unique.
The answer
  • Looks like: vegetative cells are simple Gram-negative rods, but the life cycle builds strikingly colored, elaborate multicellular fruiting bodies.
  • Unique: the most complex behavior known in bacteria — they swarm as a self-organizing unit, excrete a slime trail, lyse other bacteria for nutrients, then aggregate into mounds and differentiate into fruiting bodies.
Why they're remarkable
Myxobacteria are the social predators from Q4. What sets them apart is multicellular cooperation: a swarm moves and feeds as a single organism, lysing prey collectively, and under starvation the cells aggregate and differentiate into fruiting bodies — behavior unmatched elsewhere in bacteria. Exam hook: simple rods individually, but a social fruiting-body life cycle collectively.
Flashcard
What is unique about myxobacteria?
Spirochetes
Q7What is a spirochete — structure, habitat, tissue invasion, and key pathogens?
Structure & motility
  • Gram-negative, tightly coiled, slender and flexuous.
  • Endoflagella sit in the periplasm, surrounded by an outer sheathcorkscrew-like motion → lets them burrow through viscous material or tissue.
  • Found in: aquatic sediments and within animals.
Key pathogens
  • Syphilis = Treponema pallidum.
  • Lyme disease = Borrelia burgdorferi.
  • Leptospira interrogans = leptospirosis (localizes in the kidney → renal failure); it's the "L" in the canine distemper–leptospira–hepatitis vaccine for dogs.
Mechanism is the key
A spirochete's defining feature is its motility apparatus: endoflagella in the periplasm under an outer sheath, producing a corkscrew motion that drives the cell through thick fluids and tissue — which is exactly how pathogens like Treponema pallidum invade. Don't confuse spirochetes with spirilla, which are rigid, lack the sheath/endoflagella, and swim with external polar flagella. On the "what causes distemper?" prompt, note the lecture groups Leptospira into the dog distemper–leptospira–hepatitis combo vaccine; Leptospira's own disease is leptospirosis.
Flashcard
What gives spirochetes corkscrew motility and tissue invasion?
Flashcard
Causative agent of syphilis? Of Lyme? Of leptospirosis?
Unique Bacteria
Q8What are prosthecae, with examples, and what is unique about Hyphomicrobium?
Prosthecae
  • Prosthecae = cytoplasmic extrusions — hyphae, stalks, and appendages.
  • They allow attachment to particulate matter, plant material, and other microbes in aquatic environments.
  • Examples: Hyphomicrobium (budding replication) and Caulobacter (stalk extension + replication).
Hyphomicrobium's unique feature

It reproduces by budding via unequal cell growth: the mother cell forms a hypha, a bud forms at the hypha's end, enlarges, grows a flagellum, breaks loose, and swims away (then loses the flagellum). The daughter is entirely new while the mother retains its original identity.

Budding vs. binary fission
Prosthecae are surface-extending appendages for attachment. The standout reproducer is Hyphomicrobium: instead of symmetric binary fission, it does asymmetric budding — a new swarmer cell buds off the tip of a hypha, swims away, then settles. By contrast Caulobacter extends a stalk with a holdfast, anchoring to surfaces and forming rosettes, and divides by unequal binary fission. Exam hook: Hyphomicrobium = budding from a hypha.
Flashcard
What are prosthecae, and what's unique about Hyphomicrobium?

M4L3 — reinforcement quiz

Phylogeny & morphological diversity: commonalities, cyanobacteria, predators, spirochetes & prosthecate bacteria. Exam-style multiple choice — missed ones can be retried.

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